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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It supports NIC teaming.
B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.
Correct Answer: A
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two locations?
A. GRE over IPsec
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?
Correct Answer: C
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. extends the network to remote users
B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design methodology? (Choose three.)
D. network components
Correct Answer: ABC
Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?
Correct Answer: C
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?
A. 300 bytes
B. 1 sec
C. 150 ms
D. 500 ms
Correct Answer: C
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
C. Layer 3 access
Correct Answer: B
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users
Correct Answer: A
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)
A. minimize the effect of link failures
B. minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
C. minimize the convergence time of STP
D. load balance across redundant paths
E. save network costs
Correct Answer: AB
Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two.)
A. ESX host
E. Hyper-V host
Correct Answer: CD
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
B. static versus dynamic routing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 139
Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application?
B. Code obfuscation
C. Encryption wrapper
Explanation: ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key
security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development.
Answer: C is incorrect. An encryption wrapper is a device that encrypts and decrypts the critical or all software codes at runtime. Answer: B is incorrect. Code obfuscation transforms the code so that it is less intelligible for a person.
Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the irreversible process of embedding information into a digital media. The purpose of digital watermarks is to provide copyright protection for intellectual property that is in digital form.
QUESTION NO: 140
Which of the following is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website?
A. Cross-Site Scripting
B. Injection flaw
C. Side channel attack
D. Cross-Site Request Forgery
CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website. It is also known as a one-click attack or session riding. CSRF occurs when a user is tricked by an attacker into activating a request in order to perform some unauthorized action. It increases data loss and malicious code execution.
Answer: A is incorrect. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications which enable malicious attackers to inject client side script into web pages viewed by other users. An exploited cross-site scripting vulnerability can be used by attackers to bypass access controls, such as the same origin policy. Cross-site scripting carried out on websites were roughly 80% of all security vulnerabilities documented by Symantec as of 2007. Their impact may range from a petty nuisance to a significant security risk, depending on the sensitivity of the data handled by the vulnerable site, and the nature of any security mitigations implemented by the site owner.
Answer: C is incorrect. A side channel attack is based on information gained from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, rather than brute force or theoretical weaknesses in the algorithms (compare cryptanalysis). For example, timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks or even sound can provide an extra source of information which can be exploited to break the system. Many side- channel attacks
require considerable technical knowledge of the internal operation of the system on which the cryptography is implemented.
Answer: B is incorrect. Injection flaws are the vulnerabilities where a foreign agent illegally uses a sub-system. They are the vulnerability holes that can be used to attack a database of Web applications. It is the most common technique of attacking a database. Injection occurs when user-supplied data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The attacker’s hostile data tricks the interpreter into executing involuntary commands or changing data. Injection flaws include XSS (HTML Injection) and SQL Injection.
QUESTION NO: 141
An attacker exploits actual code of an application and uses a security hole to carry out an attack before the application vendor knows about the vulnerability. Which of the following types of attack is this?
Explanation: A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor, or for which no security fix is available. Zero-day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the vulnerability. User awareness training is the most effective technique to mitigate such attacks.
Answer: A is incorrect. A replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords or digital signatures whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to the system. In this type of attack, the attacker does not know the actual password, but can simply replay the captured packet.
Answer: C is incorrect. Man-in-the-middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets and then sends the information to the receiving host. The receiving host responds to the software, presuming it to be the legitimate client.
Answer: D is incorrect. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers perform DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to a network.
QUESTION NO: 142
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Explanation: Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of
identified risks on overall project objectives. It is performed on risk that have been prioritized through the qualitative risk analysis process.
Answer: A is incorrect. This is actually the definition of qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B is incorrect. While somewhat true, this statement does not completely define the quantitative risk analysis process.
Answer: C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the quantitative risk analysis process. Risk response planning is a separate project management process.
QUESTION NO: 143
You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. According to you, which of the following
DITSCAP/NIACAP model phases occurs at the initiation of the project, or at the initial C&A effort of a legacy system?
D. Post Accreditation
Explanation: The definition phase of the DITSCAP/NIACAP model takes place at the beginning of the project, or at the initial C&A effort of a legacy system. C&A consists of four phases in a DITSCAP assessment. These phases are the same as NIACAP phases. The order of these phases is as follows:
1.Definition: The definition phase is focused on understanding the IS business case, the mission, environment, and architecture. This phase determines the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
2.Verification: The second phase confirms the evolving or modified system’s compliance with the information. The verification phase ensures that the fully integrated system will be ready for certification testing.
3.Validation: The third phase confirms abidance of the fully integrated system with the security policy. This phase follows the requirements slated in the SSAA. The objective of the validation phase is to show the required evidence to support the DAA in accreditation process.
4.Post Accreditation: The Post Accreditation is the final phase of DITSCAP assessment and it starts after the system has been certified and accredited for operations. This phase ensures secure system management, operation, and maintenance to save an acceptable level of residual risk.
Our Cisco 200-310 dumps sample questions and DESGN dumps have designed CCDA 200-310 practice test preparation materials in order to solve the problems for 200-310 DESGN. “Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions”, also known as 200-310 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-310.html dumps exam questions answers are updated (515 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 200-310 dumps is CCDA.
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